Sartre and Homosexuality Topic: What is wrong, according to Sartre, with a homosexual saying, "I am a homosexual"? Is Sartre distinguishing two senses of the verb "to be"? Is Sartre correct in thinking that there is always something wrong with making such a statement? Could Sartre’s claim be rephrased in a more plausible form? Thesis: By virtue of Sartre’s logic, there is in fact always some thing wrong with a homosexual saying, "I am a homosexual." However, by allowing for two distinctions in English for the verb to be, the statement can be made more plausible to a lay person. According to Sa